Incompatible observables and the general uncertainty relation
Contents:
# Incompatible observables
↳ No simultaneous eigenkets $\to$ proof by contradiction.
If we did have $[\hat A, \hat B] \neq 0$ and $\hat A, \hat B$ still have simultaneous eigenkets, then
$$ \begin{aligned} \hat A\hat B|a',b'\rangle &= \hat A b'|a',b'\rangle = a'b'|a',b'\rangle \\ &= \hat B\hat A|a',b'\rangle \end{aligned} $$
$$ \implies \hat A\hat B|a',b'\rangle = \hat B\hat A|a',b'\rangle $$
or $\hat A\hat B - \hat B\hat A = 0$ $\to$ which is a contradiction.
There is a subspace in the ket space such that $|a',b'\rangle$ holds / makes sense even when $[\hat A, \hat B] \neq 0$.
For example in the $l = 0$ state (s-state), $L_x$ and $L_z$ don’t commute, but $l = 0$ is a simultaneous eigenket (all the components give 0 there). More on $l$ in the angular momentum notes.
# Sequential measurements
┌─────┐ a' ┌─────┐ b' ┌─────┐ c'
─────► │ A │ ──────► │ B │ ──────► │ C │ ──────►
│ │ ──► ■ │ │ ──► ■ │ │ ──► ■
└─────┘ rest └─────┘ rest └─────┘ rest
blocked blocked blocked
What’s the prob. of obtaining $|c'\rangle$?
We need $|a'\rangle \to |b'\rangle$ and $|b'\rangle \to |c'\rangle$:
$$ |a'\rangle \to |b'\rangle \implies |\langle b'|a'\rangle|^2, \qquad |b'\rangle \to |c'\rangle \implies |\langle c'|b'\rangle|^2 $$
$$ \therefore \text{total prob. of } |c'\rangle = |\langle c'|b'\rangle|^2|\langle b'|a'\rangle|^2 $$
Now, we had blocked some $|b'\rangle$ routes. What if we consider them one by one (and add up all the routes)?
$$ \sum_{b'}|\langle c'|b'\rangle|^2|\langle b'|a'\rangle|^2 = \sum_{b'}\langle c'|b'\rangle\langle b'|a'\rangle\langle a'|b'\rangle\langle b'|c'\rangle $$
But if we remove the $B$ filter entirely, the prob. becomes $|\langle c'|a'\rangle|^2$:
$$ |\langle c'|a'\rangle|^2 = \left|\sum_{b'}\langle c'|b'\rangle\langle b'|a'\rangle\right|^2 $$
(same imagined $|b'\rangle$, we just inserted closure).
Note the two are different! So going through all routes $\neq$ as if not going through it at all.
In both cases the pure $|a'\rangle$ beam can be regarded as
$$ |a'\rangle = \sum_{b'}|b'\rangle\langle b'|a'\rangle $$
(not an eigenvalue equation). This is what we do in the second case, as $\langle c'|a'\rangle = \sum_{b'}\langle c'|b'\rangle\langle b'|a'\rangle$. By actually recording the $|\langle b'|a'\rangle|^2$ prob. values, we change things!!
When are these expressions equal? When $[\hat A, \hat B] = 0$ or $[\hat B, \hat C] = 0$, in absence of degeneracy.
$\therefore$ for incompatible measurements only does “looking” f*ck it up.
# The general uncertainty relation
We did the dispersion in the uncertainty notes. The general uncertainty relation (insane) is:
$$ \boxed{\langle(\Delta A)^2\rangle\langle(\Delta B)^2\rangle \geq \frac{1}{4}\left|\langle[\hat A, \hat B]\rangle\right|^2} $$
Why? 3 lemmas:
- Cauchy-Schwarz
- $\langle A\rangle$ is real if $\hat A$ is Hermitian
- if $\hat A = -\hat A^\dagger$ (anti-Hermitian), the expectation value is purely imaginary.
For 2 and 3, use $\langle\beta|\hat X|\alpha\rangle = \langle\alpha|\hat X^\dagger|\beta\rangle^{\ast}$ from the operators notes:
$$ \hat A = \hat A^\dagger \implies \langle\alpha|\hat A|\alpha\rangle = \langle\alpha|\hat A|\alpha\rangle^{\ast} \implies \text{real} $$
$$ \hat A = -\hat A^\dagger \implies \langle\alpha|\hat A|\alpha\rangle = -\langle\alpha|\hat A|\alpha\rangle^{\ast} \implies \text{purely imaginary} $$
Cauchy-Schwarz is:
$$ \langle\alpha|\alpha\rangle\langle\beta|\beta\rangle \geq |\langle\alpha|\beta\rangle|^2 $$
(same as $|\vec a|^2|\vec b|^2 \geq |\vec a\cdot\vec b|^2$ for ordinary vectors). Can intuitively think of it as measuring $\langle\alpha|\alpha\rangle$, then measuring a $|b'\rangle$ beam after $B$ and taking the product. Both are “large” values prob. wise, and $|\langle\alpha|\beta\rangle|^2$ will always be a smaller or at max equal prob.
Now we use Cauchy-Schwarz and the following definitions:
$$ |\alpha\rangle = \Delta A|\ \rangle, \qquad |\beta\rangle = \Delta B|\ \rangle $$
where $|\ \rangle$ is any ket.
$$ \implies \langle(\Delta A)^2\rangle\langle(\Delta B)^2\rangle \geq |\langle\Delta A\Delta B\rangle|^2 $$
Why? Since $\Delta A$ is Hermitian,
$$ \langle\alpha|\alpha\rangle = \langle\ |\Delta A^\dagger\Delta A|\ \rangle = \langle\ |(\Delta A)^2|\ \rangle = \langle(\Delta A)^2\rangle $$
↳ the definition of expectation value. The same goes for $\langle\beta|\beta\rangle$, and $\langle\alpha|\beta\rangle = \langle\Delta A\Delta B\rangle$.
Now to evaluate $|\langle\Delta A\Delta B\rangle|^2$ we use the fact (from the commutator notes):
$$ \Delta A\Delta B = \frac{1}{2}[\Delta A, \Delta B] + \frac{1}{2}\lbrace\Delta A, \Delta B\rbrace $$
- The commutator $[\Delta A, \Delta B] = [A, B]$, since $\langle A\rangle$ and $\langle B\rangle$ are just numbers.
- $[A, B]$ is anti-Hermitian: $[A, B]^\dagger = (AB - BA)^\dagger = BA - AB = -[A, B]$
- $\lbrace\Delta A, \Delta B\rbrace$ is Hermitian (due to the positive sign).
$$ \implies \langle\Delta A\Delta B\rangle = \underbrace{\frac{1}{2}\langle[A, B]\rangle}_{\text{purely imaginary}} + \underbrace{\frac{1}{2}\langle\lbrace\Delta A, \Delta B\rbrace\rangle}_{\text{purely real}} $$
$$ |\langle\Delta A\Delta B\rangle|^2 = \frac{1}{4}|\langle[A, B]\rangle|^2 + \frac{1}{4}|\langle\lbrace\Delta A, \Delta B\rbrace\rangle|^2 $$
↳ sum of squares, hence. Throwing away the second (non-negative) term can only make the right side smaller, and this proves the inequality we saw.
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